Since this is a "Woman's Rights" thread, let's ask our resident experts.
Harmony, Chknptpie: If I told you about two men, and described them as follows, would YOU feel there is a meaningful distinction between them? Aren't both indicative of a chronic and pervasive lack of respect for women? Don't both, to Harmony's point, "marginalize" women?
Man One: Accused of a multitude of sexual assaults, at least seventeen, two confirmed and/or substantiated, with at least two infidelities proved beyond reasonable doubt (he admitted to both). One of the infidelities was ostensibly "consensual" but was in the workplace and involved him being the clear senior leader in the office and her as "intern". Later, when brought to trial related to that "consensual" relationship, it was proved he lied under oath (during a previous sexual assault claim against him), played games with the definition of what "having sex" means (distinguishing between actual intercourse on one side, and oral sex and the manual insertion of various objects into her vagina on the other). There are claims that he has in the past cavorted with a known convicted pedophile, and on at least one occasion took a flight on a private jet owned by that pedophile and known to stage "sex parties" in the air (presumably where jurisdiction of law enforcement is questionable).
Man Two: Accused of a multitude of sexual assaults, at least ten, none confirmed or substantiated, and at least one infidelity on record (which he admitted to). The infidelity was consensual; he later married the "mistress" and had one child with her. In 2016, a tape was found where he professed to "hitting on a married woman" (though he also admitted that he was turned down, so no assault was either alleged or proven) and claiming that a famous person could "just start kissing [a woman]. Just kiss. I don’t even wait. And when you’re a star, they let you do it. You can do anything. Grab ’em by the p****. You can do anything.", but not in fact, in reference to any person or any one event.