RE: that post looking at the Old Testament regulations regarding marriage.
I know that not everyone will see it this way...but to me it's pretty clear. The literal words are true...but I personally see *the principle* of the statement beyond just the literal.
Matt 19:3-8
And Pharisees came up to him, intent on tempting him and saying: “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife on every sort of ground?” In reply he said: “Did YOU not read that he who created them from [the] beginning made them male and female and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and will stick to his wife, and the two will be one flesh’? So that they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has yoked together let no man put apart.” They said to him: “Why, then, did Moses prescribe giving a certificate of dismissal and divorcing her?” He said to them: “Moses, out of regard for YOUR hardheartedness, made the concession to YOU of divorcing YOUR wives, but such has not been the case from [the] beginning.
One thing *IS* clear. God used the Law of Moses to *regulate* practices that he DID NOT necessarily agree with. So the regulation of certain practices by the Israelites was not necessarily condoning it. He just knew they were FAR too stubborn to put away the practice of "divorcing their wives"...or polygamy for that matter. In other Scriptures, Jesus states very clearly that God always intended marriage to be between ONE man and ONE woman....and that he *tolerated* polygamy for a time. He also *tolerated* divorce for a time...though he regulated both practices through the Law of Moses.
Once Jesus came to earth, he made things clear. God tolerated this stuff for a time...but no more. His *original purpose* was for ONE man and ONE woman to be married til death, and never divorce. (the only acceptable grounds being fornication...that is, cheating)