*edit*
Honestly, I would suggest just skipping to the bottom. Everything else is most likely just going to cause a repeating pattern, but I tried to step back and put the argument in a different light. I feel if this discussion has any chance of moving forward, it'll come in that last section.
So, you think it's somehow possible to ascertain that objective values and duties exist, a priori to ascertaining if we can know such moral values and duties exist?
I mean, don't you see the blatant contradiction? We're going to know that objective values and duties exist... without knowing if objective moral values and duties exist... if we can't know if objective moral and duties exist, then talking about their existence is pure irrationality.
Have you reading what I have been writing? Once more into the fray... I don't think you're understanding the difference between moral epistemology and moral ontology, Scheavo.
Moral epistemology asks: "how do we come to know these objective moral values and duties," Not "how do we come to know if they exist". (A possible answer to this question is, for example, "Through the Divine Revelation or the Bible, which outlines which moral values and duties we should follow" or "Through the intellect, which illuminates which actions would be wrong or right to take" etc ad nauseum.)
Again, moral ontology asks: "Do objective moral values and duties exist, and if so, where are they grounded?"
I'm not necessarily asking about MORAL epistemology, I'm talking about epistemology in general. Meaning, what is knowledge, how do we know, etc. I am simply asking the question, How do we know objective morals and values exist? Furthermore, in any ontology, you're going to have to prove said belief, yes? Well, I really don't know how you propose we prove something, without bringing epistemology and knowledge into the equation.
All you're doing is rewriting the question to avoid the problem with it. The way you phrase is it
fallacious, because it simply begs the question, "how do know if they exist?" You try to mislead.
We must first establish if we have good reason to believe that objective moral values and duties exist. So is there? Of course there is. Our moral intuitions clearly tell us that it is absolutely and objectively wrong -- regardless of people's opinions -- to rape and murder a 4 year old girl or that we have a duty to love a child rather than to abuse him or her.
You may know that, I may feel the same thing - but it is quite evidently clear that not everyone believes this. Otherwise, there would never be cases of a 4 yeard old getting raped and murdered. It's almost like you're ignoring the problem of evil.
Furthermore, as I just demonstrated, moral intuition is not the same as saying there is "objectively true" morals and values.
Lastly, if you read what I just posited to you, you'll notice that morality is NOT UP to individual persons opinions. It is up to genetics, society and one's upbringing. That is outside of oneself, one does not control that.
Again, Scheavo, why distrust our moral intuitions?
I never said I do distrust our moral intuitions. I in fact said just the opposite, and grounded my moral epistemology (there I am actually talking about a moral epistemology) in moral intuition. You are simply making the mistake of equating moral intuition, with God.
As I said, all attempts to ground objective morals ontologically in a secularist foundation have failed. There is no sound foundation for objective moral values and duties that is not in God. If you believe I am wrong, then you need to offer a sound foundation for objective moral values and duties apart from God.
All attempts to identify objective morals have failed. All attempts to identify something "objective" have failed. There is no sound foundation for objective morals and values, because there is no sound foundation for God's existence, which is what you're entire argument hinges upon.
Once again I am led to believe that did not bother to read my posts carefully:
1. If God exists, then we have a sound foundation for objective moral values and duties.
2. If God does not exist, then we do not have a sound foundation for objective moral values and duties.
Notice that these are conditional claims. Maybe you are right that atheism is true and God does not exist. That wouldn’t affect the truth of the two contentions. All that would follow is that objective moral values and duties would, then, not exist.
If they are conditional claims, then your claim that objective morals and values exist is not acceptable as True, and therefor everything you have been arguing no longer has a foundation. I gave you the benefit of the doubt, and assumed you're claiming consistent ideas. I apologize if that assumption was wrong.
Also, we obviously need to define "objectivity." The thing is, there is nothing you or I experience which is "objective." The degree to which I agree "objectivity" exists, is that I agree there is a World independent of either of us, a World which we share. Taking "objectivity" to mean this, then evolutionary theory clearly provides an objective way of understanding morals and values. Again, we can look at our DNA, we can look at our social history, we can look at our current social environments - all of these are objective features of the world which we can look at, and which provide insights and answers into morality and value. THe fact that it does not ground morality and value as something concrete is perhaps unfortunate, but you wanting there to be something more concrete doesn't change the fact that there doesn't appear to be anything concrete. You wanting something to be true, does not make said thing true.
All attempts to identify objective morals have failed.
Hopefully you'll answer this time when I ask you: Do your moral intuitions not tell you that raping and killing a 4 year old child is objectively wrong, regardless of people's opinions?
Think I've already clearly answered how moral intuition is not objective. Go ask a psychopath to consult their moral intuition. If moral intuition was the method by which we can determine objective morals exist, then people would not disagree about what is moral when consulting their intuitions.
The reason why, by and large, humans agree about what is moral, is becuase share evolutionary history, including genetic and social. Again, this does not cast objectivity out the window, it does not simply say, "whatever you desire to be moral, is moral." In fact, what you're proposing, that we can simply consult our moral intuitions to determine objective morality, means pyschopaths and other persons will commit atrocious crimes, becuase that's what their moral intuition tells them.
All attempts to identify something "objective" have failed.
I'll give you the benefit of the doubt and assume that you mean this only of moral values and duties.
Nope. Go look at quantum mechanics. Nothing is certain, everything is probabilistic, our and perception of reality effects and changes reality. I give you, the
Quantum Zeno Effect. You cannot understand this observable effect clinging to the old concepts of "object" and "subject." The two are merged. Neither you or I have ever directly experienced anything which falls under the classic definition of an object, because everything we experience is a fabrication of our own minds.
What may have been unclear, was my definitions of these terms, which I (loosely) provided above.
As a moral nihilist, Nietzsche would say that, for example, murdering and raping someone, for whatever reason, is not inherently right or wrong.
As I've already quoted, Nietzsche, if he was a nihilist, was only a nihilist because he did not successfully pass through. He fully wanted a new system of evaluation, one whereby you could determine the value of an action. Whether or he succeeded in that is another question, but he did try to give the framework for judging actions. I've quoted that, so you are wrong.
"After coming to this realization, he struggled greatly with his wanting to condemn actions taken by his fellow Europeans at the time as "evil" or "wrong" or "good" or "just" when, as he realized, without God, such words were meaningless!"
Any of Nietzsche's attempts to reconcile his nihilism with any hope for morality and meaning in life are in vain. There is no room for "success" of any kind once one embraces nihilism.
Nietzsche said of himself that he had passed through nihilism. Are you going to honestly doubt the words of a man regarding his personal belief? He said you must pass through Nihilism, just like Kierkegaard's passage through despair (*gasp*), and he clearly tried to posit values and a system of values whereby one COULD call someone evil, wrong, good, or just.
What you're confusing, is the fact that Nietzsche couldn't use the system that was in place, the ideological framework which you vainly try to uphold, could not allow him to make these judgements. "The Truth is that there is no Truth," is also making the point that, if one assumes there to be truth, one is invariably lead to the conclusion that there is no Truth. Search for the truth, and you shall not find it. Just like, if you search for yourself, your soul, you will find nothing.
Something could be right, because it works or succeeds, becuase it enhances one's power, one's will to power. Something could be wrong, because it doesn't work, it fails, it leads to death.
But given nihilism, Scheavo, there's no reason to think that what "works" or "succeeds" or "enhances one's power" is objectively "good" or that we are "obligated" to succeed; or because something "leads to death" doesn't objectively mean that such action is "wrong" under such a hopeless worldview, for at bottom, there is no evil, no good, no obligations, no prohibitions, no wrong, no right; nothing but pitiless, meaningless indifference to one's existence. In nihilism there are no moral truths, there is no meaning, no purpose, no reason at all for man's existence because man is nothing but a freak accident in an indifferent and purposeless universe who is inescapably destined to be swallowed whole by it and be ever forgotten.
No one is saying given nihilism. I have made it quite clear that nihilism is a means, not an end. You're treating it like an end.
That it does not matter whether a thing is true, but only what effect it produces ... Everything is justified, lies, slander, the most shameless forgery, if it was serves to raise the temperature
You ignore that bold part, the IF. So not EVERYTHING is justified, it's only justified if it does certain things, certain measurable effects.
Nothing is justified, nothing is unjustified. The only "meaning" we can ascribe to our existence is what we subjectively and arbitrarily decide to do so.
Ignore the quote, or what? That quote clearly demonstrates that not EVERYTHING is justified, justification comes through the effects. If you lower the temperature, then the action is not justified. To put it in Nietzchian terms, if you are the ebb of this great flood, then you failed, then you did not succeed.
The value for life is ultimately decisive.
So ya, he is not nearly the nihilist you and many others proclaim him to be. You just don't understand the system of values he tries to impose. He calls for nihilism because once must pass through nihilism, nihilism was for him a historical necessity, resulting from the FAILURE, the ABJECT FAILURE of your philosophy.
I'm assuming at this point that you haven't read The Will to Power.
Failure only to Nietzsche, yes. And he was smart enough to realize the consequences of killing God.
LOL. Ya, it was a failure only to Nietzsche... which is exactly why so many philosophers and thinkers since have used this framework. Like, ya know, Sartre and Camus, those other philosophers you said people should read.
Quantum mechanics works upon the principle of "killing God," - if God does not play with dice, then the fact that the universe plays with dice, means that there is no God.
And ya, the madmen is one of my favorite quotes. However, you'll notice that even after Nietzsche said that, that didn't make him run back to a faulty framework. The madmen is as much simply an historical account, as it is his personal opinion.
If there is no God, then any reason for regarding the herd morality evolved by homo-sapiens on this planet as objectively true seems to have been removed.
But that's not the argument. The argument is there we have developed a herd morality, which is objectively true. The morality which springs from it is not objectively true, as you would want to define it. I have on problem with the consequences this brings, becuase there are a host of other reasons why I shall still believe the morality that I believe, will still consult my moral intuition, etc.
So all that stuff at the end, not only do I see no problem with it, but I see no reason to think that there's a problem with it. Just becuase the world isn't as I wish it to be, doesn't mean that the world is wrong. You having a dilemma and a problem with there not being something objectively True, especially regarding morality, doesn't mean jack shit. Sorry.
First, natural science tells us only what is, not what ought to be, the case. Science is about facts, not norms; it might tell us how we are, but it wouldn’t tell us what is wrong with how we are. In particular it cannot tell us that we have a moral obligation to take actions which are conducive to human flourishing.
I agree with the first part, I disagree with the last sentence. The thing is, science tells us that what
is, is perspective morals. Natural science clearly tells us that your worldview is untenable, that it is not.
Science can tell us why we feel the moral obligation to help our fellow humans flourish. The fact that we all feel that same moral obligation is for you a sign of God, for me, and for scientific inquiry, it's because of evolution and social upbringing. Now, considering the fact's support my hypothesis, and don't give you hypothesis one ounce of support, I'm gonna go ahead and say that, regardless of how problematic my hypothesis may be (which I'll agree has trouble), it's a thousand times better than a hypothesis with absolutely no foundation and no reason to imagine is true.
What we "ought" to do, regarding novel situations, is subjective. I can consult my reasoning, my own intuition, and come to a conclusion that I feel is right - and then I can try and argue for other people to see the same thing. This is the role of philosophy, to try and determine what we ought to do. By consulting your moral intuition, you are not simply saying, "what is it that I believe?", you are consulting the billions of years of evolution, and the society you currently live in.
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Let's just take a step back though, and start with where we do agree:
We both completely agree that moral intuition is how we come to our moral conclusions.
Now, we have different ontologies for moral intuition, so let's compare those:
Your ontology for moral intuition is grounded in God, and that this provides us with an objectively, universal moral guide. This position hinges upon the existence of God, the conditional you have already made clear. Since we don't know the answer to this question, we really cant' go any farther than this, and the position is epistemologically unsound (meaning, we cannot know the answer). However, it's worth noting, as I already have, that people come to different conclusions regarding what is morally acceptable. This is an obvious fact, and to contend this is to start contending that the sky is blue. This obvious fact is also a direct challenge to the idea that moral intuition is universal, which pretty much falsifies your theory.
My ontology for moral intuition is grounded in evolutionary theory. This theory does not present universal morals, it provides perspective morals, and how those morals came to be. My theory hinges upon the veracity of evolutionary theory, as opposed to yours being upon God's existence. Now, the thing is, there is a massive amount of empirical and objective data to back up evolutionary theory. We have witnessed evolution occurring, on more than one occasion - and not just micro evolution. Evolutionary theory has an incredible power of explanation, it has helped us explain facts about the world that are otherwise unexplainable. This theory explains why people come up with different conclusions when consulting their moral intuition, as in, it gives an answer to the question of evil.
So, not only can my theory explain the same phenomenon as yours, but it can explain them with empirical data and observable facts. Yours cannot. That makes my theory epistemologically sound, and thus classifiable as knowledge. Your theory is epistemologically unsound, and so cannot be classifiable as knowledge.