Then again, nobody has ever questioned that the word "crucify" ever meant anything else but being nailed on a cross.
rumborak
I'm still kind of wondering exactly what that article is trying to say. The main points seems to be simply that whatever Jesus died on, we shouldn't necessarily assume that it was what we think of as a "cross" today. At least, I
think that's what he was saying. And that's probably true. Jesus himself referred to a "cross," as did the NT writers after him. But should we assume it was the kind of "cross" commonly depicted in art and literature? Not necessarily. How would we know?
But there was at least one thing I found troublesome with the argument. The author also seemed to say that Biblical text is silent about how Jesus was attached to whatever he was crucified on, and so we shouldn't assume he was "nailed" to it. That isn't really true either. While there aren't
many references, as John records Thomas' infamous skepticism about Jesus having arisen, Thomas wanted as proof to touch the marks of the nails on Jesus' flesh. (John 20:24-26) The think the implication is pretty straightforward. Paul, in making a point about the Jewish law becoming obsolete once Jesus died, makes the point, "This [the Jewish law] he set aside, nailing it to the cross." (Col 2:24) While it is true that this text is not
directly addressing how Jesus was crucified, it seems clear enough that Paul is trying to draw a very visual parallel between Jesus death and the passing away of the law, so it would not really make sense for him to reference being nailed to a cross if that was not what in fact happened to Jesus. I'm not really sure what the author was trying to say here.