« Reply #421 on: March 06, 2012, 11:34:17 AM »
Mark and Luke both contain similar verses/stories, so assuming someone copied someone, how do we know it was Luke that copied Mark? Why couldn't it be the other way around?
I'm not saying that it has to be the other way around, I really just don't know. 
Is it because Mark is shorter?
EDIT: Or if there's that 'Q' document or whatever, they might not have copied off each other at all. That's a possibility, isn't it?
Q doesn't have anything to do with Mark. It has to do with the non-Markan material that Luke and Matthew share with each other.
You really don't know anything about this stuff?
A little bit, but sometimes I get my terms confused. I do appreciate you tilting your chin up and making me feel like an intellectual inferior, though.
Logged
"All great works are prepared in the desert, including the redemption of the world. The precursors, the followers, the Master Himself, all obeyed or have to obey one and the same law. Prophets, apostles, preachers, martyrs, pioneers of knowledge, inspired artists in every art, ordinary men and the Man-God, all pay tribute to loneliness, to the life of silence, to the night." - A. G. Sertillanges
Topic: Jesus never existed? (Read 39221 times)
